Set-theoretical foundations of Mathematics with only bounded quantifiersIs there formal definition of...



Set-theoretical foundations of Mathematics with only bounded quantifiers


Is there formal definition of universal quantification?The egg and the chickenWhat's a magical theorem in logic?Set-theoretical multiverse and foundationsFragments of Morse—Kelley set theoryVopenka's Principle for non-first-order logicsAre there fragments of set theory which are axiomatized with only bounded (restricted) quantifiers used in axioms?About the limitation by sizeHow much should the average mathematician know about foundations?Why aren't functions used predominantly as a model for mathematics instead of set theory etc.?













11












$begingroup$


It seems that outside of researchers in Mathematical Logic, mathematicians use almost exclusively bounded quantifiers instead of unbounded quantifiers. In fact, I haven't observed any other practice from the very first day on when I was a student.



For example, a logician would write



$forall a : ( a in mathbb R ) rightarrow ( a^2 geq 0 )$



whereas most working analysists and algebraists write



$forall a in mathbb R : a^2 geq 0$



On the other hand, most mathematicians I know accept the idea that all of mathematics can be built up from set-theoretical foundations alone (starting the natural numbers).



So there seems to be a set of assumptions, almost universally agreed upon, which most working mathematicians assume implicitly for their practice. These assumptions start with set theory but apparently exclude unbounded quantifiers. In fact, unless you attend a class in formal logic you might never encounter unbounded quantifiers.



It seems that most mathematicians use a subset of human language enhanced with a subset of mathematical language (avoiding universal quantifiers) as their working language.



Question: Have there been attempts at precisely identifying this mathematical sublanguage and the rules that it governs?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Bounded quantification is simply defined as the kind of implication you write.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Unbounded quantification is simply defined as quantification bounded by the class of all sets $V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think one keyword for this question might be predicative.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Sánchez Terraf
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @AndrejBauer you miss the point. (S)he didn’t give an example of true unbounded quantification.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    19 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    I just couldn't help myself.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    17 hours ago
















11












$begingroup$


It seems that outside of researchers in Mathematical Logic, mathematicians use almost exclusively bounded quantifiers instead of unbounded quantifiers. In fact, I haven't observed any other practice from the very first day on when I was a student.



For example, a logician would write



$forall a : ( a in mathbb R ) rightarrow ( a^2 geq 0 )$



whereas most working analysists and algebraists write



$forall a in mathbb R : a^2 geq 0$



On the other hand, most mathematicians I know accept the idea that all of mathematics can be built up from set-theoretical foundations alone (starting the natural numbers).



So there seems to be a set of assumptions, almost universally agreed upon, which most working mathematicians assume implicitly for their practice. These assumptions start with set theory but apparently exclude unbounded quantifiers. In fact, unless you attend a class in formal logic you might never encounter unbounded quantifiers.



It seems that most mathematicians use a subset of human language enhanced with a subset of mathematical language (avoiding universal quantifiers) as their working language.



Question: Have there been attempts at precisely identifying this mathematical sublanguage and the rules that it governs?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Bounded quantification is simply defined as the kind of implication you write.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Unbounded quantification is simply defined as quantification bounded by the class of all sets $V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think one keyword for this question might be predicative.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Sánchez Terraf
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @AndrejBauer you miss the point. (S)he didn’t give an example of true unbounded quantification.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    19 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    I just couldn't help myself.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    17 hours ago














11












11








11


1



$begingroup$


It seems that outside of researchers in Mathematical Logic, mathematicians use almost exclusively bounded quantifiers instead of unbounded quantifiers. In fact, I haven't observed any other practice from the very first day on when I was a student.



For example, a logician would write



$forall a : ( a in mathbb R ) rightarrow ( a^2 geq 0 )$



whereas most working analysists and algebraists write



$forall a in mathbb R : a^2 geq 0$



On the other hand, most mathematicians I know accept the idea that all of mathematics can be built up from set-theoretical foundations alone (starting the natural numbers).



So there seems to be a set of assumptions, almost universally agreed upon, which most working mathematicians assume implicitly for their practice. These assumptions start with set theory but apparently exclude unbounded quantifiers. In fact, unless you attend a class in formal logic you might never encounter unbounded quantifiers.



It seems that most mathematicians use a subset of human language enhanced with a subset of mathematical language (avoiding universal quantifiers) as their working language.



Question: Have there been attempts at precisely identifying this mathematical sublanguage and the rules that it governs?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




It seems that outside of researchers in Mathematical Logic, mathematicians use almost exclusively bounded quantifiers instead of unbounded quantifiers. In fact, I haven't observed any other practice from the very first day on when I was a student.



For example, a logician would write



$forall a : ( a in mathbb R ) rightarrow ( a^2 geq 0 )$



whereas most working analysists and algebraists write



$forall a in mathbb R : a^2 geq 0$



On the other hand, most mathematicians I know accept the idea that all of mathematics can be built up from set-theoretical foundations alone (starting the natural numbers).



So there seems to be a set of assumptions, almost universally agreed upon, which most working mathematicians assume implicitly for their practice. These assumptions start with set theory but apparently exclude unbounded quantifiers. In fact, unless you attend a class in formal logic you might never encounter unbounded quantifiers.



It seems that most mathematicians use a subset of human language enhanced with a subset of mathematical language (avoiding universal quantifiers) as their working language.



Question: Have there been attempts at precisely identifying this mathematical sublanguage and the rules that it governs?







set-theory lo.logic mathematical-philosophy






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked yesterday









shuhaloshuhalo

1,6741531




1,6741531








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Bounded quantification is simply defined as the kind of implication you write.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Unbounded quantification is simply defined as quantification bounded by the class of all sets $V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think one keyword for this question might be predicative.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Sánchez Terraf
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @AndrejBauer you miss the point. (S)he didn’t give an example of true unbounded quantification.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    19 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    I just couldn't help myself.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    17 hours ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Bounded quantification is simply defined as the kind of implication you write.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Unbounded quantification is simply defined as quantification bounded by the class of all sets $V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think one keyword for this question might be predicative.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Sánchez Terraf
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @AndrejBauer you miss the point. (S)he didn’t give an example of true unbounded quantification.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    19 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    I just couldn't help myself.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    17 hours ago








1




1




$begingroup$
There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Bounded quantification is simply defined as the kind of implication you write.
$endgroup$
– Monroe Eskew
yesterday




$begingroup$
There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Bounded quantification is simply defined as the kind of implication you write.
$endgroup$
– Monroe Eskew
yesterday




2




2




$begingroup$
There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Unbounded quantification is simply defined as quantification bounded by the class of all sets $V$.
$endgroup$
– Andrej Bauer
21 hours ago






$begingroup$
There is no logical difference between the above two expressions. Unbounded quantification is simply defined as quantification bounded by the class of all sets $V$.
$endgroup$
– Andrej Bauer
21 hours ago






1




1




$begingroup$
I think one keyword for this question might be predicative.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Sánchez Terraf
21 hours ago




$begingroup$
I think one keyword for this question might be predicative.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Sánchez Terraf
21 hours ago




2




2




$begingroup$
@AndrejBauer you miss the point. (S)he didn’t give an example of true unbounded quantification.
$endgroup$
– Monroe Eskew
19 hours ago






$begingroup$
@AndrejBauer you miss the point. (S)he didn’t give an example of true unbounded quantification.
$endgroup$
– Monroe Eskew
19 hours ago














$begingroup$
I just couldn't help myself.
$endgroup$
– Andrej Bauer
17 hours ago




$begingroup$
I just couldn't help myself.
$endgroup$
– Andrej Bauer
17 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















12












$begingroup$


The most ambitious (and well-argued) attempt at formulating a set-theoretical foundation of the type you are proposing using bounded quantification has been suggested by non other than Saunders Mac Lane in the last chapter of his book Mathematics, Form and Function.




Mac Lane dubbed his system ZBQC, which can be described as a weakening of Zermelo set theory in which the scheme of separation is limited to formulae with bounded quantification. Curiously, at the level of consistency strength, ZBQC is the only known lower bound to the consistency strength of Quine's system NF; moreover, it is known that that the urelement-version, NFU, of NF (in which the axiom of infinity is included) is equiconsistent with ZBQC.




On the other hand, Adrian Mathias has critically-and-forcefully responded to Mac Lane's thesis to found mathematics on ZBQC; see here for an article of his addressed to philosophers and general mathematicians, together with a response from Mac Lane; and here for an article addressed to logicians.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I"m not sure what "(weak) upper bound" means, but I'd understand "ZBQC is an upper bound to the consistency strength of NF" to mean that Con(ZBQC) implies Con(NF). Did you mean the converse of that?
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass I will change the wording to make it more clear, I put the parenthetical "weak" to distinguish it from "strict", and as you suspected, "upper bound" should have been "lower bound".
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The conclusion of Randall Holmes’s purported proof of consistency of NF (arxiv.org/abs/1503.01406) suggests that it has the consistency strength of ZBQC, so the lower bound may actually be tight.
    $endgroup$
    – Emil Jeřábek
    16 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    If I remember right, there is a good treatment of Mac Lane’s ZBQC in the book by John Bell.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago



















9












$begingroup$

Most mathematics can be done in logical systems which are far weaker than Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory. For example, something like structural set theory will suffice for a great deal of ordinary mathematics.



It's not exactly true that mathematicians never use unbounded quantification. For example, in category theory universal properties quantify over all objects of a category. When the category in question is large this amounts to unbounded quantification. In a sense, such quantification is "harmless" because it is "on the outside", i.e., it is of the form $forall X . phi(X)$ where $phi$ itself contains no further unbounded quantifiers. In many cases we can replace such a statement with a schema $phi(X)$ where $X$ is a schematic symbol (that is, instead of having a single formula $forall X . phi(X)$ we have many separate formulas $phi(X)$, one for each $X$).



Occasionally one sees mathematical statements which do contain inner unbounded quantifiers, but those are not common. One example I can think of is the following. The notion of epimorphism in a category requires quantification over all objects: a morphism $f : A to B$ is epi when for all all $C$ (unbounded quantifier!) and $g, h : B to C$, if $g circ f = h circ f$ then $g = h$. Often in concrete example we can characterize epis equivalently with some statement that only contains bounded quantifiers (e.g., in the category of sets a map is epi if, and only if it is surjective), but if we make general statements about epis in large categories, large quantification will be required.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MonroeEskew: let us not confuse a particular first-order set-theoretic language based on $in$-relation with mathematical practice. It is quite natural to have a langauge in which the powerset (and other basic set-theoretic operations) are primitive function symbols. So yes, we need to fix a language, but let us fix something that looks like mathematical practice.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Monroe: The point that these examples are $Pi_1$ is important, but I read it with a very different informal interpretation than you do: I see such examples as illustrating that the informal concept the Lévy hierarchy formalises is not really quite “unbounded quantification”, but something more like “higher-order quantification”. And it’s worth appreciating that ZFC and its choice of language is not the only foundational system; there are systems where products genuinely require unbounded quantification, and systems where power-objects do not.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As with anything foundational, it’s great to have precise definitions that aim to formalise concepts from informal practice, but one mustn’t make them a Procrustean bed when they don’t quite fit those informal notions.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PeterLeFanuLumsdaine: I have to confess that I never received an informal concept of (un)bounded quantification. One has to be clear about what the bounds are. In the usage I’m most familiar with, and what seems to be that of the OP, the bounds are restriction to membership in a given set. The usefulness of this notion are the various absoluteness theorems about it. (Of course, in the set-theoretic context, all of these considerations regard first-order logic.)
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As I mentioned, one can always do a model-theoretic “cheat” to eliminate any desired quantifiers in some sense, but the question is whether this results in something interesting. And the right test for that seems to be comparing truths in different structures of the same language and base theory. Which is not to say that set theory is the only context in which this is relevant. In set theory, “$x = y times z$“ is $Delta_0$ and thus quite absolute. But perhaps in certain categorical contexts it has a different complexity and is not so absolute.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago














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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









12












$begingroup$


The most ambitious (and well-argued) attempt at formulating a set-theoretical foundation of the type you are proposing using bounded quantification has been suggested by non other than Saunders Mac Lane in the last chapter of his book Mathematics, Form and Function.




Mac Lane dubbed his system ZBQC, which can be described as a weakening of Zermelo set theory in which the scheme of separation is limited to formulae with bounded quantification. Curiously, at the level of consistency strength, ZBQC is the only known lower bound to the consistency strength of Quine's system NF; moreover, it is known that that the urelement-version, NFU, of NF (in which the axiom of infinity is included) is equiconsistent with ZBQC.




On the other hand, Adrian Mathias has critically-and-forcefully responded to Mac Lane's thesis to found mathematics on ZBQC; see here for an article of his addressed to philosophers and general mathematicians, together with a response from Mac Lane; and here for an article addressed to logicians.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I"m not sure what "(weak) upper bound" means, but I'd understand "ZBQC is an upper bound to the consistency strength of NF" to mean that Con(ZBQC) implies Con(NF). Did you mean the converse of that?
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass I will change the wording to make it more clear, I put the parenthetical "weak" to distinguish it from "strict", and as you suspected, "upper bound" should have been "lower bound".
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The conclusion of Randall Holmes’s purported proof of consistency of NF (arxiv.org/abs/1503.01406) suggests that it has the consistency strength of ZBQC, so the lower bound may actually be tight.
    $endgroup$
    – Emil Jeřábek
    16 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    If I remember right, there is a good treatment of Mac Lane’s ZBQC in the book by John Bell.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago
















12












$begingroup$


The most ambitious (and well-argued) attempt at formulating a set-theoretical foundation of the type you are proposing using bounded quantification has been suggested by non other than Saunders Mac Lane in the last chapter of his book Mathematics, Form and Function.




Mac Lane dubbed his system ZBQC, which can be described as a weakening of Zermelo set theory in which the scheme of separation is limited to formulae with bounded quantification. Curiously, at the level of consistency strength, ZBQC is the only known lower bound to the consistency strength of Quine's system NF; moreover, it is known that that the urelement-version, NFU, of NF (in which the axiom of infinity is included) is equiconsistent with ZBQC.




On the other hand, Adrian Mathias has critically-and-forcefully responded to Mac Lane's thesis to found mathematics on ZBQC; see here for an article of his addressed to philosophers and general mathematicians, together with a response from Mac Lane; and here for an article addressed to logicians.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I"m not sure what "(weak) upper bound" means, but I'd understand "ZBQC is an upper bound to the consistency strength of NF" to mean that Con(ZBQC) implies Con(NF). Did you mean the converse of that?
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass I will change the wording to make it more clear, I put the parenthetical "weak" to distinguish it from "strict", and as you suspected, "upper bound" should have been "lower bound".
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The conclusion of Randall Holmes’s purported proof of consistency of NF (arxiv.org/abs/1503.01406) suggests that it has the consistency strength of ZBQC, so the lower bound may actually be tight.
    $endgroup$
    – Emil Jeřábek
    16 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    If I remember right, there is a good treatment of Mac Lane’s ZBQC in the book by John Bell.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago














12












12








12





$begingroup$


The most ambitious (and well-argued) attempt at formulating a set-theoretical foundation of the type you are proposing using bounded quantification has been suggested by non other than Saunders Mac Lane in the last chapter of his book Mathematics, Form and Function.




Mac Lane dubbed his system ZBQC, which can be described as a weakening of Zermelo set theory in which the scheme of separation is limited to formulae with bounded quantification. Curiously, at the level of consistency strength, ZBQC is the only known lower bound to the consistency strength of Quine's system NF; moreover, it is known that that the urelement-version, NFU, of NF (in which the axiom of infinity is included) is equiconsistent with ZBQC.




On the other hand, Adrian Mathias has critically-and-forcefully responded to Mac Lane's thesis to found mathematics on ZBQC; see here for an article of his addressed to philosophers and general mathematicians, together with a response from Mac Lane; and here for an article addressed to logicians.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




The most ambitious (and well-argued) attempt at formulating a set-theoretical foundation of the type you are proposing using bounded quantification has been suggested by non other than Saunders Mac Lane in the last chapter of his book Mathematics, Form and Function.




Mac Lane dubbed his system ZBQC, which can be described as a weakening of Zermelo set theory in which the scheme of separation is limited to formulae with bounded quantification. Curiously, at the level of consistency strength, ZBQC is the only known lower bound to the consistency strength of Quine's system NF; moreover, it is known that that the urelement-version, NFU, of NF (in which the axiom of infinity is included) is equiconsistent with ZBQC.




On the other hand, Adrian Mathias has critically-and-forcefully responded to Mac Lane's thesis to found mathematics on ZBQC; see here for an article of his addressed to philosophers and general mathematicians, together with a response from Mac Lane; and here for an article addressed to logicians.








share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 17 hours ago

























answered yesterday









Ali EnayatAli Enayat

10.6k13468




10.6k13468








  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I"m not sure what "(weak) upper bound" means, but I'd understand "ZBQC is an upper bound to the consistency strength of NF" to mean that Con(ZBQC) implies Con(NF). Did you mean the converse of that?
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass I will change the wording to make it more clear, I put the parenthetical "weak" to distinguish it from "strict", and as you suspected, "upper bound" should have been "lower bound".
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The conclusion of Randall Holmes’s purported proof of consistency of NF (arxiv.org/abs/1503.01406) suggests that it has the consistency strength of ZBQC, so the lower bound may actually be tight.
    $endgroup$
    – Emil Jeřábek
    16 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    If I remember right, there is a good treatment of Mac Lane’s ZBQC in the book by John Bell.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago














  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I"m not sure what "(weak) upper bound" means, but I'd understand "ZBQC is an upper bound to the consistency strength of NF" to mean that Con(ZBQC) implies Con(NF). Did you mean the converse of that?
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass I will change the wording to make it more clear, I put the parenthetical "weak" to distinguish it from "strict", and as you suspected, "upper bound" should have been "lower bound".
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    21 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The conclusion of Randall Holmes’s purported proof of consistency of NF (arxiv.org/abs/1503.01406) suggests that it has the consistency strength of ZBQC, so the lower bound may actually be tight.
    $endgroup$
    – Emil Jeřábek
    16 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    If I remember right, there is a good treatment of Mac Lane’s ZBQC in the book by John Bell.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago








5




5




$begingroup$
I"m not sure what "(weak) upper bound" means, but I'd understand "ZBQC is an upper bound to the consistency strength of NF" to mean that Con(ZBQC) implies Con(NF). Did you mean the converse of that?
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
yesterday




$begingroup$
I"m not sure what "(weak) upper bound" means, but I'd understand "ZBQC is an upper bound to the consistency strength of NF" to mean that Con(ZBQC) implies Con(NF). Did you mean the converse of that?
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
yesterday




1




1




$begingroup$
@AndreasBlass I will change the wording to make it more clear, I put the parenthetical "weak" to distinguish it from "strict", and as you suspected, "upper bound" should have been "lower bound".
$endgroup$
– Ali Enayat
21 hours ago






$begingroup$
@AndreasBlass I will change the wording to make it more clear, I put the parenthetical "weak" to distinguish it from "strict", and as you suspected, "upper bound" should have been "lower bound".
$endgroup$
– Ali Enayat
21 hours ago






1




1




$begingroup$
The conclusion of Randall Holmes’s purported proof of consistency of NF (arxiv.org/abs/1503.01406) suggests that it has the consistency strength of ZBQC, so the lower bound may actually be tight.
$endgroup$
– Emil Jeřábek
16 hours ago




$begingroup$
The conclusion of Randall Holmes’s purported proof of consistency of NF (arxiv.org/abs/1503.01406) suggests that it has the consistency strength of ZBQC, so the lower bound may actually be tight.
$endgroup$
– Emil Jeřábek
16 hours ago












$begingroup$
If I remember right, there is a good treatment of Mac Lane’s ZBQC in the book by John Bell.
$endgroup$
– Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
If I remember right, there is a good treatment of Mac Lane’s ZBQC in the book by John Bell.
$endgroup$
– Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
11 hours ago











9












$begingroup$

Most mathematics can be done in logical systems which are far weaker than Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory. For example, something like structural set theory will suffice for a great deal of ordinary mathematics.



It's not exactly true that mathematicians never use unbounded quantification. For example, in category theory universal properties quantify over all objects of a category. When the category in question is large this amounts to unbounded quantification. In a sense, such quantification is "harmless" because it is "on the outside", i.e., it is of the form $forall X . phi(X)$ where $phi$ itself contains no further unbounded quantifiers. In many cases we can replace such a statement with a schema $phi(X)$ where $X$ is a schematic symbol (that is, instead of having a single formula $forall X . phi(X)$ we have many separate formulas $phi(X)$, one for each $X$).



Occasionally one sees mathematical statements which do contain inner unbounded quantifiers, but those are not common. One example I can think of is the following. The notion of epimorphism in a category requires quantification over all objects: a morphism $f : A to B$ is epi when for all all $C$ (unbounded quantifier!) and $g, h : B to C$, if $g circ f = h circ f$ then $g = h$. Often in concrete example we can characterize epis equivalently with some statement that only contains bounded quantifiers (e.g., in the category of sets a map is epi if, and only if it is surjective), but if we make general statements about epis in large categories, large quantification will be required.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MonroeEskew: let us not confuse a particular first-order set-theoretic language based on $in$-relation with mathematical practice. It is quite natural to have a langauge in which the powerset (and other basic set-theoretic operations) are primitive function symbols. So yes, we need to fix a language, but let us fix something that looks like mathematical practice.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Monroe: The point that these examples are $Pi_1$ is important, but I read it with a very different informal interpretation than you do: I see such examples as illustrating that the informal concept the Lévy hierarchy formalises is not really quite “unbounded quantification”, but something more like “higher-order quantification”. And it’s worth appreciating that ZFC and its choice of language is not the only foundational system; there are systems where products genuinely require unbounded quantification, and systems where power-objects do not.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As with anything foundational, it’s great to have precise definitions that aim to formalise concepts from informal practice, but one mustn’t make them a Procrustean bed when they don’t quite fit those informal notions.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PeterLeFanuLumsdaine: I have to confess that I never received an informal concept of (un)bounded quantification. One has to be clear about what the bounds are. In the usage I’m most familiar with, and what seems to be that of the OP, the bounds are restriction to membership in a given set. The usefulness of this notion are the various absoluteness theorems about it. (Of course, in the set-theoretic context, all of these considerations regard first-order logic.)
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As I mentioned, one can always do a model-theoretic “cheat” to eliminate any desired quantifiers in some sense, but the question is whether this results in something interesting. And the right test for that seems to be comparing truths in different structures of the same language and base theory. Which is not to say that set theory is the only context in which this is relevant. In set theory, “$x = y times z$“ is $Delta_0$ and thus quite absolute. But perhaps in certain categorical contexts it has a different complexity and is not so absolute.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago


















9












$begingroup$

Most mathematics can be done in logical systems which are far weaker than Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory. For example, something like structural set theory will suffice for a great deal of ordinary mathematics.



It's not exactly true that mathematicians never use unbounded quantification. For example, in category theory universal properties quantify over all objects of a category. When the category in question is large this amounts to unbounded quantification. In a sense, such quantification is "harmless" because it is "on the outside", i.e., it is of the form $forall X . phi(X)$ where $phi$ itself contains no further unbounded quantifiers. In many cases we can replace such a statement with a schema $phi(X)$ where $X$ is a schematic symbol (that is, instead of having a single formula $forall X . phi(X)$ we have many separate formulas $phi(X)$, one for each $X$).



Occasionally one sees mathematical statements which do contain inner unbounded quantifiers, but those are not common. One example I can think of is the following. The notion of epimorphism in a category requires quantification over all objects: a morphism $f : A to B$ is epi when for all all $C$ (unbounded quantifier!) and $g, h : B to C$, if $g circ f = h circ f$ then $g = h$. Often in concrete example we can characterize epis equivalently with some statement that only contains bounded quantifiers (e.g., in the category of sets a map is epi if, and only if it is surjective), but if we make general statements about epis in large categories, large quantification will be required.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MonroeEskew: let us not confuse a particular first-order set-theoretic language based on $in$-relation with mathematical practice. It is quite natural to have a langauge in which the powerset (and other basic set-theoretic operations) are primitive function symbols. So yes, we need to fix a language, but let us fix something that looks like mathematical practice.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Monroe: The point that these examples are $Pi_1$ is important, but I read it with a very different informal interpretation than you do: I see such examples as illustrating that the informal concept the Lévy hierarchy formalises is not really quite “unbounded quantification”, but something more like “higher-order quantification”. And it’s worth appreciating that ZFC and its choice of language is not the only foundational system; there are systems where products genuinely require unbounded quantification, and systems where power-objects do not.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As with anything foundational, it’s great to have precise definitions that aim to formalise concepts from informal practice, but one mustn’t make them a Procrustean bed when they don’t quite fit those informal notions.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PeterLeFanuLumsdaine: I have to confess that I never received an informal concept of (un)bounded quantification. One has to be clear about what the bounds are. In the usage I’m most familiar with, and what seems to be that of the OP, the bounds are restriction to membership in a given set. The usefulness of this notion are the various absoluteness theorems about it. (Of course, in the set-theoretic context, all of these considerations regard first-order logic.)
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As I mentioned, one can always do a model-theoretic “cheat” to eliminate any desired quantifiers in some sense, but the question is whether this results in something interesting. And the right test for that seems to be comparing truths in different structures of the same language and base theory. Which is not to say that set theory is the only context in which this is relevant. In set theory, “$x = y times z$“ is $Delta_0$ and thus quite absolute. But perhaps in certain categorical contexts it has a different complexity and is not so absolute.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago
















9












9








9





$begingroup$

Most mathematics can be done in logical systems which are far weaker than Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory. For example, something like structural set theory will suffice for a great deal of ordinary mathematics.



It's not exactly true that mathematicians never use unbounded quantification. For example, in category theory universal properties quantify over all objects of a category. When the category in question is large this amounts to unbounded quantification. In a sense, such quantification is "harmless" because it is "on the outside", i.e., it is of the form $forall X . phi(X)$ where $phi$ itself contains no further unbounded quantifiers. In many cases we can replace such a statement with a schema $phi(X)$ where $X$ is a schematic symbol (that is, instead of having a single formula $forall X . phi(X)$ we have many separate formulas $phi(X)$, one for each $X$).



Occasionally one sees mathematical statements which do contain inner unbounded quantifiers, but those are not common. One example I can think of is the following. The notion of epimorphism in a category requires quantification over all objects: a morphism $f : A to B$ is epi when for all all $C$ (unbounded quantifier!) and $g, h : B to C$, if $g circ f = h circ f$ then $g = h$. Often in concrete example we can characterize epis equivalently with some statement that only contains bounded quantifiers (e.g., in the category of sets a map is epi if, and only if it is surjective), but if we make general statements about epis in large categories, large quantification will be required.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Most mathematics can be done in logical systems which are far weaker than Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory. For example, something like structural set theory will suffice for a great deal of ordinary mathematics.



It's not exactly true that mathematicians never use unbounded quantification. For example, in category theory universal properties quantify over all objects of a category. When the category in question is large this amounts to unbounded quantification. In a sense, such quantification is "harmless" because it is "on the outside", i.e., it is of the form $forall X . phi(X)$ where $phi$ itself contains no further unbounded quantifiers. In many cases we can replace such a statement with a schema $phi(X)$ where $X$ is a schematic symbol (that is, instead of having a single formula $forall X . phi(X)$ we have many separate formulas $phi(X)$, one for each $X$).



Occasionally one sees mathematical statements which do contain inner unbounded quantifiers, but those are not common. One example I can think of is the following. The notion of epimorphism in a category requires quantification over all objects: a morphism $f : A to B$ is epi when for all all $C$ (unbounded quantifier!) and $g, h : B to C$, if $g circ f = h circ f$ then $g = h$. Often in concrete example we can characterize epis equivalently with some statement that only contains bounded quantifiers (e.g., in the category of sets a map is epi if, and only if it is surjective), but if we make general statements about epis in large categories, large quantification will be required.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 21 hours ago









Andrej BauerAndrej Bauer

31.2k480170




31.2k480170








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MonroeEskew: let us not confuse a particular first-order set-theoretic language based on $in$-relation with mathematical practice. It is quite natural to have a langauge in which the powerset (and other basic set-theoretic operations) are primitive function symbols. So yes, we need to fix a language, but let us fix something that looks like mathematical practice.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Monroe: The point that these examples are $Pi_1$ is important, but I read it with a very different informal interpretation than you do: I see such examples as illustrating that the informal concept the Lévy hierarchy formalises is not really quite “unbounded quantification”, but something more like “higher-order quantification”. And it’s worth appreciating that ZFC and its choice of language is not the only foundational system; there are systems where products genuinely require unbounded quantification, and systems where power-objects do not.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As with anything foundational, it’s great to have precise definitions that aim to formalise concepts from informal practice, but one mustn’t make them a Procrustean bed when they don’t quite fit those informal notions.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PeterLeFanuLumsdaine: I have to confess that I never received an informal concept of (un)bounded quantification. One has to be clear about what the bounds are. In the usage I’m most familiar with, and what seems to be that of the OP, the bounds are restriction to membership in a given set. The usefulness of this notion are the various absoluteness theorems about it. (Of course, in the set-theoretic context, all of these considerations regard first-order logic.)
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As I mentioned, one can always do a model-theoretic “cheat” to eliminate any desired quantifiers in some sense, but the question is whether this results in something interesting. And the right test for that seems to be comparing truths in different structures of the same language and base theory. Which is not to say that set theory is the only context in which this is relevant. In set theory, “$x = y times z$“ is $Delta_0$ and thus quite absolute. But perhaps in certain categorical contexts it has a different complexity and is not so absolute.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MonroeEskew: let us not confuse a particular first-order set-theoretic language based on $in$-relation with mathematical practice. It is quite natural to have a langauge in which the powerset (and other basic set-theoretic operations) are primitive function symbols. So yes, we need to fix a language, but let us fix something that looks like mathematical practice.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrej Bauer
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Monroe: The point that these examples are $Pi_1$ is important, but I read it with a very different informal interpretation than you do: I see such examples as illustrating that the informal concept the Lévy hierarchy formalises is not really quite “unbounded quantification”, but something more like “higher-order quantification”. And it’s worth appreciating that ZFC and its choice of language is not the only foundational system; there are systems where products genuinely require unbounded quantification, and systems where power-objects do not.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    12 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As with anything foundational, it’s great to have precise definitions that aim to formalise concepts from informal practice, but one mustn’t make them a Procrustean bed when they don’t quite fit those informal notions.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PeterLeFanuLumsdaine: I have to confess that I never received an informal concept of (un)bounded quantification. One has to be clear about what the bounds are. In the usage I’m most familiar with, and what seems to be that of the OP, the bounds are restriction to membership in a given set. The usefulness of this notion are the various absoluteness theorems about it. (Of course, in the set-theoretic context, all of these considerations regard first-order logic.)
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (cont’d) As I mentioned, one can always do a model-theoretic “cheat” to eliminate any desired quantifiers in some sense, but the question is whether this results in something interesting. And the right test for that seems to be comparing truths in different structures of the same language and base theory. Which is not to say that set theory is the only context in which this is relevant. In set theory, “$x = y times z$“ is $Delta_0$ and thus quite absolute. But perhaps in certain categorical contexts it has a different complexity and is not so absolute.
    $endgroup$
    – Monroe Eskew
    11 hours ago










1




1




$begingroup$
@MonroeEskew: let us not confuse a particular first-order set-theoretic language based on $in$-relation with mathematical practice. It is quite natural to have a langauge in which the powerset (and other basic set-theoretic operations) are primitive function symbols. So yes, we need to fix a language, but let us fix something that looks like mathematical practice.
$endgroup$
– Andrej Bauer
13 hours ago




$begingroup$
@MonroeEskew: let us not confuse a particular first-order set-theoretic language based on $in$-relation with mathematical practice. It is quite natural to have a langauge in which the powerset (and other basic set-theoretic operations) are primitive function symbols. So yes, we need to fix a language, but let us fix something that looks like mathematical practice.
$endgroup$
– Andrej Bauer
13 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
@Monroe: The point that these examples are $Pi_1$ is important, but I read it with a very different informal interpretation than you do: I see such examples as illustrating that the informal concept the Lévy hierarchy formalises is not really quite “unbounded quantification”, but something more like “higher-order quantification”. And it’s worth appreciating that ZFC and its choice of language is not the only foundational system; there are systems where products genuinely require unbounded quantification, and systems where power-objects do not.
$endgroup$
– Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
12 hours ago






$begingroup$
@Monroe: The point that these examples are $Pi_1$ is important, but I read it with a very different informal interpretation than you do: I see such examples as illustrating that the informal concept the Lévy hierarchy formalises is not really quite “unbounded quantification”, but something more like “higher-order quantification”. And it’s worth appreciating that ZFC and its choice of language is not the only foundational system; there are systems where products genuinely require unbounded quantification, and systems where power-objects do not.
$endgroup$
– Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
12 hours ago






1




1




$begingroup$
(cont’d) As with anything foundational, it’s great to have precise definitions that aim to formalise concepts from informal practice, but one mustn’t make them a Procrustean bed when they don’t quite fit those informal notions.
$endgroup$
– Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
(cont’d) As with anything foundational, it’s great to have precise definitions that aim to formalise concepts from informal practice, but one mustn’t make them a Procrustean bed when they don’t quite fit those informal notions.
$endgroup$
– Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine
11 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
@PeterLeFanuLumsdaine: I have to confess that I never received an informal concept of (un)bounded quantification. One has to be clear about what the bounds are. In the usage I’m most familiar with, and what seems to be that of the OP, the bounds are restriction to membership in a given set. The usefulness of this notion are the various absoluteness theorems about it. (Of course, in the set-theoretic context, all of these considerations regard first-order logic.)
$endgroup$
– Monroe Eskew
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
@PeterLeFanuLumsdaine: I have to confess that I never received an informal concept of (un)bounded quantification. One has to be clear about what the bounds are. In the usage I’m most familiar with, and what seems to be that of the OP, the bounds are restriction to membership in a given set. The usefulness of this notion are the various absoluteness theorems about it. (Of course, in the set-theoretic context, all of these considerations regard first-order logic.)
$endgroup$
– Monroe Eskew
11 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
(cont’d) As I mentioned, one can always do a model-theoretic “cheat” to eliminate any desired quantifiers in some sense, but the question is whether this results in something interesting. And the right test for that seems to be comparing truths in different structures of the same language and base theory. Which is not to say that set theory is the only context in which this is relevant. In set theory, “$x = y times z$“ is $Delta_0$ and thus quite absolute. But perhaps in certain categorical contexts it has a different complexity and is not so absolute.
$endgroup$
– Monroe Eskew
11 hours ago






$begingroup$
(cont’d) As I mentioned, one can always do a model-theoretic “cheat” to eliminate any desired quantifiers in some sense, but the question is whether this results in something interesting. And the right test for that seems to be comparing truths in different structures of the same language and base theory. Which is not to say that set theory is the only context in which this is relevant. In set theory, “$x = y times z$“ is $Delta_0$ and thus quite absolute. But perhaps in certain categorical contexts it has a different complexity and is not so absolute.
$endgroup$
– Monroe Eskew
11 hours ago




















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