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Does The Brexit Deal Have To Be Agreed By Both Houses?


Brexit vote passes through The CommonsWhat happens if Parliament rejects the Brexit deal?Brexit: Is a 'No deal' worse than a 'Bad Deal' for the UK, from a strictly economics based argumentIs the Brexit implementation period predicated on a deal with the EU?Brexit deal 'Meaningful vote' battle between House of Lords and House of CommonsVolume of UK law originating in the House of LordsWhat does Nicholas Watt mean that May has “enough tellers for her Brexit vote”?What will happen if Parliament votes “no” on each of the Brexit-related votes to be held on the 12th, 13th and 14th of March?Is there a survey of the public opinion whether no-deal is preferable to the November deal?Why didn't Theresa May consult with Parliament before negotiating a deal with the EU?













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Does the "divorce deal" have to be agreed by both the Commons and the Lords? If it does and the Lords reject it, what happens then?










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      Does the "divorce deal" have to be agreed by both the Commons and the Lords? If it does and the Lords reject it, what happens then?










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      Does the "divorce deal" have to be agreed by both the Commons and the Lords? If it does and the Lords reject it, what happens then?







      brexit house-of-commons house-of-lords






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      asked 2 hours ago









      SpacePhoenixSpacePhoenix

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          2 Answers
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          active

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          3














          It must. And the House of Commons can basically overrule the House of Lords if the latter gets in its way.



          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/House_of_Lords#Legislative_functions




          The House of Lords debates legislation, and has power to amend or reject bills. However, the power of the Lords to reject a bill passed by the House of Commons is severely restricted by the Parliament Acts. Under those Acts, certain types of bills may be presented for the Royal Assent without the consent of the House of Lords (i.e. the Commons can override the Lords' veto). The House of Lords cannot delay a money bill (a bill that, in the view of the Speaker of the House of Commons, solely concerns national taxation or public funds) for more than one month.



          Other public bills cannot be delayed by the House of Lords for more than two parliamentary sessions, or one calendar year. These provisions, however, only apply to public bills that originate in the House of Commons, and cannot have the effect of extending a parliamentary term beyond five years. A further restriction is a constitutional convention known as the Salisbury Convention, which means that the House of Lords does not oppose legislation promised in the Government's election manifesto.







          share|improve this answer
























          • It might be worth adding (1) that the reason both Houses' approval is needed is because the Withdrawal Agreement requires an Act of Parliament to implement; and (2) why an Act is needed.

            – Steve Melnikoff
            3 mins ago



















          1














          Denis has given the formal answer, but there is also a political reason why the House of Lords will not block a deal.



          The House of Lords is unelected, and the Lords are aware that the existence of their institution is controversial. If, after years of Brexit drama, the House of Commons were to finally pass a Withdrawal Agreement, only to be rejected by the House of Lords, there would be a major uproar, potentially to the level that the existence of the House of Lords may be under threat, but at least to the level that their powers may be severely curtailed further. For that reason alone, for such an important and controversial piece of legislation, the House of Lords will not block it when it has passed the House of Commons. It would be suicidal.






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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            3














            It must. And the House of Commons can basically overrule the House of Lords if the latter gets in its way.



            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/House_of_Lords#Legislative_functions




            The House of Lords debates legislation, and has power to amend or reject bills. However, the power of the Lords to reject a bill passed by the House of Commons is severely restricted by the Parliament Acts. Under those Acts, certain types of bills may be presented for the Royal Assent without the consent of the House of Lords (i.e. the Commons can override the Lords' veto). The House of Lords cannot delay a money bill (a bill that, in the view of the Speaker of the House of Commons, solely concerns national taxation or public funds) for more than one month.



            Other public bills cannot be delayed by the House of Lords for more than two parliamentary sessions, or one calendar year. These provisions, however, only apply to public bills that originate in the House of Commons, and cannot have the effect of extending a parliamentary term beyond five years. A further restriction is a constitutional convention known as the Salisbury Convention, which means that the House of Lords does not oppose legislation promised in the Government's election manifesto.







            share|improve this answer
























            • It might be worth adding (1) that the reason both Houses' approval is needed is because the Withdrawal Agreement requires an Act of Parliament to implement; and (2) why an Act is needed.

              – Steve Melnikoff
              3 mins ago
















            3














            It must. And the House of Commons can basically overrule the House of Lords if the latter gets in its way.



            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/House_of_Lords#Legislative_functions




            The House of Lords debates legislation, and has power to amend or reject bills. However, the power of the Lords to reject a bill passed by the House of Commons is severely restricted by the Parliament Acts. Under those Acts, certain types of bills may be presented for the Royal Assent without the consent of the House of Lords (i.e. the Commons can override the Lords' veto). The House of Lords cannot delay a money bill (a bill that, in the view of the Speaker of the House of Commons, solely concerns national taxation or public funds) for more than one month.



            Other public bills cannot be delayed by the House of Lords for more than two parliamentary sessions, or one calendar year. These provisions, however, only apply to public bills that originate in the House of Commons, and cannot have the effect of extending a parliamentary term beyond five years. A further restriction is a constitutional convention known as the Salisbury Convention, which means that the House of Lords does not oppose legislation promised in the Government's election manifesto.







            share|improve this answer
























            • It might be worth adding (1) that the reason both Houses' approval is needed is because the Withdrawal Agreement requires an Act of Parliament to implement; and (2) why an Act is needed.

              – Steve Melnikoff
              3 mins ago














            3












            3








            3







            It must. And the House of Commons can basically overrule the House of Lords if the latter gets in its way.



            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/House_of_Lords#Legislative_functions




            The House of Lords debates legislation, and has power to amend or reject bills. However, the power of the Lords to reject a bill passed by the House of Commons is severely restricted by the Parliament Acts. Under those Acts, certain types of bills may be presented for the Royal Assent without the consent of the House of Lords (i.e. the Commons can override the Lords' veto). The House of Lords cannot delay a money bill (a bill that, in the view of the Speaker of the House of Commons, solely concerns national taxation or public funds) for more than one month.



            Other public bills cannot be delayed by the House of Lords for more than two parliamentary sessions, or one calendar year. These provisions, however, only apply to public bills that originate in the House of Commons, and cannot have the effect of extending a parliamentary term beyond five years. A further restriction is a constitutional convention known as the Salisbury Convention, which means that the House of Lords does not oppose legislation promised in the Government's election manifesto.







            share|improve this answer













            It must. And the House of Commons can basically overrule the House of Lords if the latter gets in its way.



            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/House_of_Lords#Legislative_functions




            The House of Lords debates legislation, and has power to amend or reject bills. However, the power of the Lords to reject a bill passed by the House of Commons is severely restricted by the Parliament Acts. Under those Acts, certain types of bills may be presented for the Royal Assent without the consent of the House of Lords (i.e. the Commons can override the Lords' veto). The House of Lords cannot delay a money bill (a bill that, in the view of the Speaker of the House of Commons, solely concerns national taxation or public funds) for more than one month.



            Other public bills cannot be delayed by the House of Lords for more than two parliamentary sessions, or one calendar year. These provisions, however, only apply to public bills that originate in the House of Commons, and cannot have the effect of extending a parliamentary term beyond five years. A further restriction is a constitutional convention known as the Salisbury Convention, which means that the House of Lords does not oppose legislation promised in the Government's election manifesto.








            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 2 hours ago









            Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

            13.5k33756




            13.5k33756













            • It might be worth adding (1) that the reason both Houses' approval is needed is because the Withdrawal Agreement requires an Act of Parliament to implement; and (2) why an Act is needed.

              – Steve Melnikoff
              3 mins ago



















            • It might be worth adding (1) that the reason both Houses' approval is needed is because the Withdrawal Agreement requires an Act of Parliament to implement; and (2) why an Act is needed.

              – Steve Melnikoff
              3 mins ago

















            It might be worth adding (1) that the reason both Houses' approval is needed is because the Withdrawal Agreement requires an Act of Parliament to implement; and (2) why an Act is needed.

            – Steve Melnikoff
            3 mins ago





            It might be worth adding (1) that the reason both Houses' approval is needed is because the Withdrawal Agreement requires an Act of Parliament to implement; and (2) why an Act is needed.

            – Steve Melnikoff
            3 mins ago











            1














            Denis has given the formal answer, but there is also a political reason why the House of Lords will not block a deal.



            The House of Lords is unelected, and the Lords are aware that the existence of their institution is controversial. If, after years of Brexit drama, the House of Commons were to finally pass a Withdrawal Agreement, only to be rejected by the House of Lords, there would be a major uproar, potentially to the level that the existence of the House of Lords may be under threat, but at least to the level that their powers may be severely curtailed further. For that reason alone, for such an important and controversial piece of legislation, the House of Lords will not block it when it has passed the House of Commons. It would be suicidal.






            share|improve this answer




























              1














              Denis has given the formal answer, but there is also a political reason why the House of Lords will not block a deal.



              The House of Lords is unelected, and the Lords are aware that the existence of their institution is controversial. If, after years of Brexit drama, the House of Commons were to finally pass a Withdrawal Agreement, only to be rejected by the House of Lords, there would be a major uproar, potentially to the level that the existence of the House of Lords may be under threat, but at least to the level that their powers may be severely curtailed further. For that reason alone, for such an important and controversial piece of legislation, the House of Lords will not block it when it has passed the House of Commons. It would be suicidal.






              share|improve this answer


























                1












                1








                1







                Denis has given the formal answer, but there is also a political reason why the House of Lords will not block a deal.



                The House of Lords is unelected, and the Lords are aware that the existence of their institution is controversial. If, after years of Brexit drama, the House of Commons were to finally pass a Withdrawal Agreement, only to be rejected by the House of Lords, there would be a major uproar, potentially to the level that the existence of the House of Lords may be under threat, but at least to the level that their powers may be severely curtailed further. For that reason alone, for such an important and controversial piece of legislation, the House of Lords will not block it when it has passed the House of Commons. It would be suicidal.






                share|improve this answer













                Denis has given the formal answer, but there is also a political reason why the House of Lords will not block a deal.



                The House of Lords is unelected, and the Lords are aware that the existence of their institution is controversial. If, after years of Brexit drama, the House of Commons were to finally pass a Withdrawal Agreement, only to be rejected by the House of Lords, there would be a major uproar, potentially to the level that the existence of the House of Lords may be under threat, but at least to the level that their powers may be severely curtailed further. For that reason alone, for such an important and controversial piece of legislation, the House of Lords will not block it when it has passed the House of Commons. It would be suicidal.







                share|improve this answer












                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer










                answered 37 mins ago









                gerritgerrit

                19.9k881180




                19.9k881180






















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